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Taking the throne and inheritance of the Eastern Roman Empire still has some significance for the current Ferdinand.

Nominally, the Eastern Roman Emperor was not only the emperor of the "Eastern Romans", his official title was "Roman Emperor" (and a bunch of other titles were attached). After all, the Eastern Roman Empire can also be said to be the Eastern Empire of the Roman Empire, and it was divided with the Western Empire back then. After 395, the Eastern and Western Roman Empires should be said to be divided between the two emperors, and they could not be completely separated, otherwise where would the legal basis for Justinian's reconquest come from? The Hellenistic process of the Eastern Roman Empire was greatly accelerated, and it was only with Justinian that it began with Justinian. After Justinian, another name for the Eastern Roman Empire, the "Byzantine Empire", is more reliable.

After the destruction of the Eastern Roman Empire, the Ottoman Sultan Mehmed II called himself the "Roman Emperor", not the "Eastern Roman Emperor", since he was the emperor of the Roman Empire, then the hegemony should naturally not stop at the Balkans, conquer Italy, Spain, Austria, North Africa, and turn the Mediterranean Sea into an inland lake, which is logical!

But, then again, that's problematic. The Holy Roman Empire is still there! This empire is recognized as the de jure heir of the Western Roman Empire, which means that the juridical heritage of the Western Empire is still alive. There is also something wrong with using the jurisprudence of the Eastern Roman Emperor to "cover" the entire Roman Empire. Of course, the Ottoman Empire will not care about this, I said that I inherited the jurisprudence of the Roman Empire, that is, the jurisprudence of the entire Roman Empire, who cares about you Shinra.

Naturally, Ferdinand did not dwell on the question of whether the Eastern Roman Empire could represent the entire Roman Empire. He didn't want to conquer the Holy Roman Empire, that big pit was still waiting for the Ottoman Empire to charge, and it was better to swallow all the power of the Sultan in the bottomless abyss of the Holy Roman Empire.

For Ferdinand, the legal legitimacy of Rome could serve as a preparatory card for the future integration of the Spanish possessions.

The integration of Spain was mainly the integration of Castile and Aragon.

This is divided into two aspects: de jure consolidation and de facto control.

In terms of actual control, Ferdinand was not worried. Even according to the original history, he can at least become the regent of the Kingdom of Castile, as long as he suppresses those nobles at the beginning - this is not a big problem, it is a big deal to keep consuming, it will take a hundred and eighty years, the daylilies are cold, and I am afraid that it will not be integrated?

At this time, the Eastern Roman Empire's imperial throne and its imperial succession came in handy, and in another hundred years, after Spain merged with Portugal, suppressed the French demons, and controlled England, Ferdinand, who had no political opponents, could start the great law of merger, and sacrifice the Eastern Roman Empire - it is better to call it the "Roman Empire" directly - this banner will unify the four kingdoms of Aragon, Castile, Portugal, and England under the union of the "New Roman Empire", just like Prussia, Bavaria, and the German Empire. The four kingdoms of Saxony and Württemberg are the same. The Americas can also be added to the Empire Commonwealth as provinces and crown realms of the Empire. In this way, the status of legal unity was established.

Of course, this method is extremely reluctant, and in fact it is "cheating" - the Castilian nobles do not know the details of their "opponents", how do they know that His Majesty King Ferdinand/Regent has such a state of "immortality"?

If there were no "cheating", in the eyes of the Castilian aristocracy, Ferdinand would have been regent for a decade or two, or at most twenty-three years, and would have let go—for the simple reason that since he was a man, no matter how powerful and iron-fisted he was, he would one day die and go to see Jehovah and his old man......

If Ferdinand's regency had died for some time, then Castile and Aragon would not have separated, but would have been inherited by Ferdinand's son, forming a republican union.

Here again, Ferdinand seized on a trick to lead to a second, more active way of integration.

For the Castilian nobles, Ferdinand was forty or fifty anyway, he would die, and he could not remain regent indefinitely, and secondly, after the death of His Majesty King Ferdinand, Castile and Aragon were still in a republican alliance......

Well, Castile and Aragon are inseparable anyway, right?

It would, then, be unacceptable to allow His Majesty King Ferdinand to strengthen his power in Castile while he was alive.

Then, Ferdinand can seize certain opportunities to learn the skill of eating soft rice Max King William III of England.

After William III expelled James II with the Glorious Revolution with troops from the Netherlands, the English Parliament had intended only to make him regent of England, or "restricted king". The "restricted king" was King Philip II of Spain, who married Bloody Mary, and when he married Mary, Philip II and Mary were both kings of England. But apparently the British were not at ease with him.

Philip's kingship was thus limited. First of all, his kingship was based on his marriage and conjugal relationship with Mary. Although he was given the name of king and not regent, Philip II was the king of England because Mary was king (queen) and Philip II was Mary's husband. When Mary and Philip divorced, or Mary died, Philip II's position as King of England came to an end.

The new king should be the son or daughter of Philip II and Queen Mary, and if the son or daughter succeeds to the throne, Philip II still has plans to act as a regent.

However, neither Philip II nor Queen Mary lived together for a few days, and there were no descendants anywhere.

Therefore, as soon as Queen Mary died, Philip II was no longer the king of England, and he had nothing to do with the throne and royal power of England. Therefore, Philip II wanted to marry his sister after marrying his sister, hoping to serve as king of England one more time.

Therefore, it is not for nothing that Queen Elizabeth I thinks that Philip will control England instead.

Unfortunately, William and Mary also had no children, and their later heir to the throne was Princess Anne, also known as Queen Anne. The American part of the War of the Spanish Succession is known as the War of Queen Anne.

Therefore, once Queen Mary died, William III's status as a co-king would no longer exist, even if Parliament would continue to make William III regent because he was invited to carry out the Glorious Revolution and had an army in his hands and also served as the governor of the Netherlands, it was uncertain that even if an agreement was reached with Parliament, it would be difficult to ensure that there would be no variables.