I believe that many readers will have a question when they see this: shouldn't the Middle Ages be a feudal era, why were there slaves?

This brings us to the definition of "feudal". Due to the particularity of modern Chinese history and culture www.biquge.info the meaning of the word "feudal" in modern Chinese has been seriously broadened, and it is far from the original meaning, so there will be great confusion when comparing the real "feudal system" in Europe and Japan.

The word "feudal" in modern Chinese refers more to a kind of production relations than to a social system, and generally refers to the class antagonism between land lords and farmers, and all societies that adopt such production relations can be called "feudal society" in modern Chinese.

The original meaning of "feudal" in ancient Chinese was not a relationship of production, but a pure social system, which was basically the same as the feudal system in Europe and Japan, that is, "sub-feudal" and "institutional": the emperor divided the land within the territory to the princes, and the princes in turn divided the feudal feuds to the doctors, and the doctors in turn divided the feudal clans, and so on. According to the original meaning of the word "feudal", China's feudal era ended with the destruction of the Six Kingdoms by Qin, and after that, the county system was centralized by the emperor, that is, the "imperial era".

In this way, there is no essential conflict between feudalism and slavery. In Europe, it is true that the large-scale slavery of the Roman era was basically abolished after entering the feudal era, but in China, the real pre-Qin "feudal era" was the heyday of slavery. This goes back to the starting point: slavery is a relation of production, and there is no contradiction with the "feudalism" of the social system itself. In the final analysis, in fact, the slave production relations prevailed in the republican or imperial period of ancient Greece and Rome in Europe, so it was classified as a "slave society", and the production relations in the feudal period of the Middle Ages were generally the land lease system of the lord of the mining province to the farmers, and the name of this production relationship crossed the sea, and the name of "feudal" represented the imperial era of China for more than 3,000 years, and the original meaning of the word "feudal" is no longer familiar to the Chinese people.

Therefore, according to the actual situation in the pre-Qin era of ancient China, it can be judged that under the feudal social system, there can also be slavery production relations. Back to the background of this book, Diablo is naturally in the European Middle Ages, and theoretically slavery production relations should not be the mainstream, but the official novel clearly affirms the existence of slavery (the kingdom of Westmathal in the book "The Way of the Dark"), so at present, I have detailed the setting as follows: slaves do exist, but the Sakaram Hadith stipulates that nobles cannot directly own slaves, so most slaves are owned by civilian merchants and are not the main force of production relations.